All versions of the scriptures that I have ever seen,
teach that all mankind will be saved. And all versions that I have
ever seen, except one, deny it. What, then are we to
The King James Version, the one now that is most
commonly used, says:
"Therefore, as by the offense of one judgment
came upon all men to condemnation, even so by the righteousness of one
the free gift came upon all unto justification of life," - Rom.
"For this is good and acceptable in the sight
of God our Savior, who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto
the knowledge of the truth," - I Tim. 2:3, 4.
"We trust in the living God, who is the savior
of all men, specially of those who believe," - I Tim.
"For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ
shall all be made alive," - I Cor. 15:22.
Now, do these passages mean what they say? Is
there justification for all? Will God have all to be saved?
Is God the Savior of all? Will all be made alive in
Why do not people believe this? Because the
clergy would rather have them believe the passages that teach the
opposite! And why is this? When people cannot believe two
sets of passages that contradict each other, why do clergymen prefer
that they believe those which deny the salvation of all, instead of
those that affirm it? Because they have come to think that fear of
eternal torment, or of eternal death, is the lever needed to pry people
loose from sin and get them to "accept Christ." In other
words, the love of God is not relied on; fear must be
Does not this fact give us cause to suspect that
passages which teach eternal torment, or eternal death, were
mistranslated, to inject fear into the people? If ministers today
will use them, implying that Rom. 5:18; I Tim. 2:3; 4; I Tim. 4:10 and I
Cor. 15:22, are not true is there any reason to doubt that the
translators mistranslated, for the same purpose?
There was no possibility of mistranslating the
passages quoted so that they would teach the very opposite of what they
say in the Greek. It just couldn't be done, without changing every
word in the passages. This, they did not dare do!
But they found this passage, "And these shall be
coming away into eonian chastening," (kolasin aionion), Matt.
25:46, and they translated the two Greek words which I have placed in
parentheses, "everlasting punishment." In truth "kolasin"
is chastening. If Christ had meant punishment, He would have said
"timorias." This word is used in Heb. 10:29, and the
King James Version correctly renders it
Timorias and kolasin are never used interchangeably
in the original manuscripts. Punishment is to satisfy the
punishers; chastening is to benefit the chastened. Discounting the
sacrifice of Christ, (the Offering God prepared, and that satisfies
Him), the clergy suppose God must punish, to get satisfaction. Not
so. It is not even said in Heb. 10:29, that the ones mentioned
here will be punished; it merely says they are worthy of
punishment. God will chasten - not punish!
Aionion is aion, with the adjective ending. No
other word has been so badly abused by the translators. In
Ephesians, for instance, (to select a passage at random), aion is,
according to the translators, "course" in 2:2; "age"
in 2:7; "world" in 3:9; "eternal" in 3:11; and both
"age" and "end" in 3:21. Now, what do you
think of this? Can one word mean course, age, world, eternal and
end? The word is abused much worse than this, as we would see by
examining other passages; but these examples are sufficient to convince
the earnest reader that the translators cannot be trusted with the
translation of "aion," and its adjective form.
The use of the word in the Greek text
determines its meaning. "Before the aions," (I Cor. 2:7);
"Before times aionion," (II Tim. 1:9); and "The
conclusion of the aions," (Heb. 9:26), show that aion does not
denote eternity. The aions had a beginning, of else there could
not have been time before the aions; they will have a conclusion, hence
will not last eternally. The English Dictionary says aion, or eon,
is a vast period of time. The most modern English spelling is
eon. There are more than one eon, but the first one had a
beginning and the last one will have a conclusion.
And yet, this word, aion, is the only Greek word that
is so rendered in the King James Version, as to deny that all mankind
will be saved. This mistranslation denies Rom. 5:18; I Tim. 2:3,
4; I Tim. 4:10; and I Cor. 15:22, as they are rendered in that
Version. Yet, if we accept the meaning of aion as taught in I Cor.
2:7; II Tim. 1:9; and Heb. 9:26, we can see that those mentioned in
Matt. 25:46 can have eonian chastening, and then be saved
If you mention this to the average minister who has a
smattering of Greek, he will reply, "But the same word, 'aionion,'
is used of those who go into life, in Matt. 25:46." They
think this clinches the matter. But, see here! The judgment
mentioned in that passage, beginning with verse 31, will take place at
the beginning of the kingdom, which must last a thousand years, (Rev.
20:5), and which must be follower by the last eon, (Rev. 21 and 22 down
to verse 5), and both the life and the chastening MUST be eonian.
They cannot be other than that, while the eons last. The righteous
go into eonian life, and the others into eonian chastening.
Nothing can be called eternal until the eons end.
Eternal chastening would be a farce. How could
it benefit the chastened? For that matter, how could eternal
punishment benefit anyone? Could it satisfy God? If so, what
a Fiend He must be! May He deal graciously with me for even
thinking that sentence!
"American" is "America" with the
adjective ending. If I say, "I saw an American river," I
could as well have said, "I saw a river in America."
Thus, also, eonian chastening is chastening in the eons.
The believer is promised eonian life John 3:16; the
unbeliever shall not have it. When the consummation of the eons
comes the believer will continue to live, but it then becomes eternal
life. At that time death, (Rev. 20:14), shall be abolished, (I
Cor. 15:22-28) and all shall have life. God is the special Savior
of the believer, (I Tim. 4:10), and he shall have eonian life. God
is the Savior of all mankind, (same verse), and all shall have eternal
life after the eons.
The translators found this passage, "Who shall
incur the justice of eonian extermination," (olethron aionion), II
Thess. 1:19, and they translated the two Greed words shown here,
"everlasting destruction." Extermination is the correct
rendering, but it is EONIAN, not everlasting, extermination. They
can have this inflicted on them, and yet be saved, just as the
first-quoted passages teach.
Mark 3:28 says, quoting Christ, "Verily I am
saying to you that the penalty of all the sins shall be pardoned the
sons of mankind, and the blasphemies whatsoever they should be
blaspheming, yet whosoever should be blaspheming the holy spirit is
having no pardon for the eon, but is liable to the penalty of an eonian
sin." The King James translators made Christ say that the one
blaspheming the holy spirit "hath never forgiveness, but is
in danger of eternal damnation"
The Greek word for "never," oudepo, is
absent from the passage. And again they mishandle "aion."
According to them, that word is both, "never" and
"eternal." And if there is any word that is the exact
opposite of eternal, it is never. Thus they make aion mean two
opposite things, in one passage!
Christ said the penalty of all sins and blasphemies
SHALL BE PARDONED. Did He then say, in the very next breath, that
one blasphemy SHALL NEVER BE PARDONED? Do you not see what this
means? It would make Christ reverse Himself!
One certain blasphemy shall not be pardoned for the
eon; the one committing it is liable to the penalty of an eonian
sin. All this can be true, and Rom. 5:18; I Tim. 2:3, 4; I Tim.
4:10; and I Cor. 15: 22, still be true.
If the translators had correctly rendered this one
little word, "aion," and its adjective form, there would not
have been a passage in their Version to deny the justification,
salvation and vivification of all mankind.
Don't try to reason about it. Just believe
God. Don't drag in faith as a prerequisite for the salvation of
all. Investigate all passages dealing with this, and remember that
"eternal" and "everlasting" are mistranslations, and
that eon or eonian is in those passages. Then you will see that
faith is necessary for eonian life - not for eternal or everlasting
The one exception mentioned in the first paragraph - the
one Version that does not deny the salvation of all mankind - is the
Concordant Version, Published by the Concordant Publishing Concern, 2823
East Sixth St., Los Angeles, California. It would be a great
happiness to you if you possessed a copy.
Does not the phrase, "the everlasting God,"
in Rom. 16:26, teach that God is eternal? And would not the
rendering, "eonian God," limit Him to the eons? No, to
both questions. The fact that He is God, shows Him to be
eternal. "Eonian" speaks of His relationship to the
eons, when He is so much needed! Is "King eternal," in I
Tim. 1:17, a correct rendering? It is not! "The King of
the eons," is correct.